Why bar reparation claims over forefathers’ actions?
I refer to the letter headlined “The old slavery blame game” by Hugh Brasnell in Tuesday’s Express.
The writer, like some before him, thinks the alleged involvement of Africans in the enslavement of other Africans is an absolute bar to any claim for reparations.
If at the core of a claim for reparations is the concept of compensation, why should the involvement of the victim’s forefathers in the impugned conduct (assuming the truth of the assertion) be such a bar?
A brazen defendant may attempt to argue the victim contributed to the damage he suffered, but beyond that it is difficult to contemplate a defendant going further.
Anyway, in the upcoming issue of Atlantic magazine, I am told there will be a tremendous piece by someone whose views may interest Mr Brasnell.